Ok… So when the immigrations prior to 1948 were happening, there was officially no recognized “Israel” state existing…just as there was officially no recognized “Palestine” state existing.
How do you get from that point of history to “Israeli” politicians today claiming that there is no possibility of a two-state solution and that “Israel” should annex Gaza, WB, or both?
If both groups started from a point of neither having an established state, then what elevates “Israel” to having a right to exist that does not likewise apply to Palestine?
Did “Israel” get the right from God?
Did “Israel” get the right because “might makes right”?
What is the basis for the situation where two groups start without states and only one ends up with a right to exist?